All things about CCNA

Semister 3: Chapter 1

2008-09-08T20:00:00.001-07:00

Semister 3: Chapter 1

Take Assessment - ESwitching Chapter 1 - CCNA Exploration (Version 4.0)

1. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?

access layer

core layer

data-link layer

distribution layer

network layer

physical layer

2. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

security policies

Power over Ethernet

switch port security

quality of service

Layer 3 functionality

end user access to network

3. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?

core only

distribution and core

access and distribution

access, distribution, and core

4. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)

Power over Ethernet

load balancing across redundant trunk links

redundant components

Quality of Service

link aggregation

5. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?

Layer 1

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 5

6. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?

Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.

The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.

A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.

QoS issues are greatly reduced.

There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams.

7. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?

Power over Ethernet

quality of service

switch port security

inter-VLAN routing

8. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?

application

access

distribution

network

core

9. What statement best describes a modular switch?

a slim-line chassis

allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane

defined physical characteristics

flexible characteristics

Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?

Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.

Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.

Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.

Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

11. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?

application

access

distribution

network

core

12. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)

port security

security policies

10 Gigabit Ethernet

quality of service (QoS)

hot-swappable hardware

Power over Ethernet (PoE)

13. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?

core layer

distribution layer

access layer

entry layer

14. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)

low port density

high forwarding rate

high latency level

support link aggregation

predefined number of ports

15. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?

StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.

StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.

StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.

StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

16. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)

forwarding rate

traffic flow analysis

expected future growth

number of required core connections

number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

17. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?

convergence

redundant links

link aggregation

network diameter

18. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?

Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

19. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?

PoE

redundancy

aggregation

access lists

Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?

scalability

security

redundancy

maintainability

CCNA Exploration 3 LAN Switching and Wireless Final Exam

2008-09-08T19:49:00.001-07:00

Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS

routing

trunking

VPN

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied to the switch?

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)

This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.

A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.

Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.

Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.

The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?

VLAN 10 and VLAN 20

VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20

VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005

VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

5. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?

Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.

Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.

From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.

Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.

The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

7. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

reduced contention for bandwidth

reduced size of the physical layout

increased fault tolerance of the network

elimination of the need for wiring closets

elimination of the need for layer three functionality

simplification of management and troubleshooting

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?

Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.

The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.

A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.

Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs.

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?

The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.

Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.

This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.

The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.

When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?

SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.

SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.

SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.

SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.

Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)

requires the use of subinterfaces on the router

requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch

more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces

requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command

can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface

makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.

It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.

It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.

It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.

It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3

add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table

forward the frame out Interface3

discard the frame

forward the frame out all interfaces

forward the frame out Interface2

Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?

SSID

OFDM

WEP

DSSS

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.11 /28

192.168.1.22 /28

192.168.1.33 /28

192.168.1.44 /28

192.168.1.55 /28

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1

switch SW1

router R1

switch SW2

router R2

switch SW4

What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.

Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.

Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.

The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?

802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?

computer B

computer B and Router1

computer C and Router1

computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1

computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1

computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?

AS1 and AS2

DS1 and DS2

Gateway and CS1

Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)

S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.

S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.

S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.

S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.

S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.

What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?

disable port security

make the port operational

override the default port behavior

force the port to be a part of a single vlan

Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?

AID

SSID

BSSID

ESSID

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)

S1-Central# reload

S1-Central# erase flash:

S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2

S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat

S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)

Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.

The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.

The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.

The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.

Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?

A syslog message will be logged.

Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.

The incoming frames will be dropped.

The security violation count will be incremented.

Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

The switch is sending and receiving data frames.

The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.

The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.

The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

only hosts A and B

only hosts A, B, and C

only hosts A, B, C, and D

only hosts A, B, C, and E

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.

An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.

An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.

A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?

Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.

Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)

This switch shows no configuration revision errors.

This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.

This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.

This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.

This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.

32. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?

The network diameter limitation is 9.

BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.

The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.

The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

33.

Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?

SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.

SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.

SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.

SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?

The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.

The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.

The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.

The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The SSH version number is wrong.

SSH has been configured on the wrong line.

Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.

The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A

switch B

switch C

switch D

switch E

switch F

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?

Cat-A

Cat-B

Cat-C

Cat-D

38. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)

requires less equipment

provides improved range

permits increased data rates

has a single-input and a single-output

needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

The switch ports are on different VLANs.

The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.

The hosts are configured on different logical networks.

A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.

The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.

The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)

Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.

A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.

The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.

A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.

Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.

An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

41. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?

The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.

The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.

The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.

To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

42. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.

Enable password is configured as cisco.

All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.

The flash directory contains the IOS image.

VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.

All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?

S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.

R1 does not have an active routing protocol.

The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.

Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)

Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.

Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.

Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.

Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.

Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.

Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.

Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

46. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?

client

root

server

transparent

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.

SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.

VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

48. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

Select the correct VTP mode and version.

Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.

Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.

Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.

Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?

Disable VTP pruning on SW2.

Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.

Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.

Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.

Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.

No routing protocol is configured on Router1.

One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

51. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?

A new RSA key pair is created.

The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.

The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.

The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)

After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.

Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.

The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.

Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.

If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

ccna 3 : Module 7

2008-07-30T09:03:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 9 : 1st Semester
[Options with Red Color are correct Answers]

Take Assessment - ESwitching Chapter 7 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

1. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?

set up WEP on the access point only

set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it

set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open

set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open

2. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)

802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.

The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.

802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.

802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.

802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

3. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?

site survey

risk assessment

scalability design

network protocol analysis

4. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?

CSMA/CD

token passing

CSMA/CA

polling

5. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?

dynamically assigns an IP address to the host

provides local DHCP services

converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation

provides a gateway for connecting to other networks

6. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?

beacon

password

probe request

association request

7. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?

Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.

Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.

Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.

Disable SSID broadcasts.

8. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?

802.11a

802.11b

802.11g

802.11n

9. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?

to keep users segregated on separate subnets

to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized

to keep signals from interfering with each other

to keep traffic secure

10. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?

Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.

Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.

All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.

All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.

11. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)

802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.

Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.

The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.

802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.

A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.

12. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?

association response

beacon

key

probe request

13. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?

converts clear text data before transmission

indicates which channel the data should flow on

determines that the correct host is utilizing the network

allows the host to choose which channel to use

14. Why is security so important in wireless networks?

Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.

Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.

Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.

Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

15. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?

authentication

SSID broadcasting

MAC address filtering

EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

16. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)

MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.

Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.

Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.

Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.

Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

17. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?

This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.

The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.

Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.

Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.

18. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.

Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.

Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.

An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

19. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?

bandwidth saturation

privacy concerns

media contention

device interoperability

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?

Network Mode

Network Name (SSID)

Radio Band

Wide Channel

Standard Channel

21. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)

gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures

built-in Ethernet switch

network management station

VTP server

wireless access point

VPN concentrator

ccna 3 : Module 6 question answer

2008-07-26T10:35:00.001-07:00

Take Assessment - ESwitching Chapter 6 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 6 : 3rd Semester
[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?

The router interface is shut down.

The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.

All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.

The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.

The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?

PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.

The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.

The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.

The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?

R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.

R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.

Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.

The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?

PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.

The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.

An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.

The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

5. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?

Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.

Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.

Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

This design will not scale easily.

The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.

This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.

This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.

This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.

If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

7. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?

a network with more than 100 subnetworks

a network with a limited number of VLANs

a network with experienced support personnel

a network using a router with one LAN interface

8. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?

Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.

Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.

Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.

Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.

The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.

The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

10. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)

one subinterface per VLAN

one physical interface for each subinterface

one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface

one trunked link per VLAN

a management domain for each subinterface

a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

11. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?

Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.

Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

12. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)

subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth

more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing

less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?

R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.

S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.

S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.

S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

14. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?

The physical interface must have an IP address configured.

The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.

The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.

The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet

15.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

Port 0/4 is not active.

Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.

Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.

Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.

A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.

Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.

Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

17. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?

Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.

Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.

Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.

Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

18. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.

When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.

When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.

Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.

Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.

Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.

Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

20. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)

The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.

The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.

The command configures a subinterface.

The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.

Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address

CCNA 3 : Module 5

2008-07-24T19:40:00.001-07:00

Take Assessment - ESwitching Chapter 4 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

1. What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)

unable to add VLANs

can add VLANs of local significance

forward broadcasts out all ports with no respect to VLAN information

can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes

can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)

If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.

This switch shows no configuration revision errors.

This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.

This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.

This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

3. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?

only VLAN 1

all VLANs

no VLANs

the native VLAN

4. Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?

Reset the revision number on S2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.

Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.

Change S1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat and change back to server mode.

Change S2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically propagate.

5. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?

Enable VTP pruning.

Change the VTP domain name.

Change the VTP mode to client.

Change all the interfaces on the switch to access ports.

6. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)

revision number

domain name

pruning

mode

domain password

version number

7
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)

Switch1 is in client mode.

Switch2 is in server mode.

Switch2 is in transparent mode.

Switch1 is in a different management domain.

Switch1 has end devices that are connected to the ports.

Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

8. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?

A five-minute update timer has elapsed.

A port on the switch has been shutdown.

The switch is changed to the transparent mode.

A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.

9. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?

It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.

It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.

It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.

It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.

It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?

Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.

The switches must be interconnected via an access link.

The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.

Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?

All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.

Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?

S2 will automatically transition to VTP transparent mode.

S2 will remove all VLANs from the VLAN database until the cable is reconnected.

S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision, but will lose the VLANs if it is reloaded.

S2 will automatically send a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

13. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)

Switches must be connected via trunks.

The VTP domain name is case sensitive.

Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.

The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.

Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?

The switch operates as a VTP client.

The switch operates in VTP transparent mode.

The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

The switch operates as a VTP server in the default VTP domain and does not affect the configuration in the existing VTP domain.

15. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)

Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.

Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.

Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.

Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.

Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?

It verifies the configured VTP password.

It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.

It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.

It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

17. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.

VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.

VTP allows a switch to be configured to belong to more than one VTP domain.

VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

18. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?

Layer 2 broadcast

Layer 2 multicast

Layer 2 unicast

Layer 3 broadcast

Layer 3 multicast

Layer 3 unicast

Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?

VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.

Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.

Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.

20. Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)

Pruning is enabled by default.

Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.

Pruning must be configured on all VTP servers in the domain.

VLANs on VTP client-mode switches will not be pruned.

Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

[Above 85%]

CCNA 2 : Module 2

2008-07-10T08:51:00.001-07:00

CCNA2 - Module 2

1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface

2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.

4. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

6. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

8. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

10. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device

11. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

12. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address

13. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

14. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

15. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route

16. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.

17. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25

18. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

19. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

CCNA 2 : Module 1

2008-07-10T08:42:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration (Version 4)

Second Semester

1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

10. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over

17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded

19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4

20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory

21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination addres

CCNA 1: Final Question Answer

2008-07-10T08:21:00.001-07:00

CCNA1 - Final Exam

1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
A, B, D, G

Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
only computer D

Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
enable secret

Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
100 Base-FX
1000 Base LX

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
192.168.254.1

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
address translation

Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.95 /27

What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
NVRAM

A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
router

Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
transport

Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J#

Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
upper-layer connection-oriented protocols

A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
enable secret

Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?
a terminal emulation program

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)
The connection type is called a VTY session.
The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.

The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
service port number

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
A single broadcast domain is present
Five collision domains exist.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
segment1
segment3
segment4
What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
uses a flat structure
uniquely identifies each host
contains a network portion

Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
The return segment will contain a source port of 23.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
198.133.219.25:80

During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two applications communicating the data

Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)
The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.

Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - straight-through cable

Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
The host's primary domain name server.

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
The data listed is associated with the transport layer.

Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
physical addressing
media access control

Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 1023

As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address
255.255.254.0

Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?
Athens

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75

Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star

Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
subnet mask incorrectly entered

Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)
192.168.18.49
192.168.18.52
192.168.18.59

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The prefix of the computer address is /27.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving Dallas

Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
transport

CCNA 1: Module 11 Question Answer

2008-06-05T08:22:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 11 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

1. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
UBAMA# configure terminal
UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
UBAMA(config)# line console 0
UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
after a system restart
as the commands are entered
when logging off the system
when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

3. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password class
line console 0
password ccna
enable secret cisco
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A
enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
Console
Telnet
SSH

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login

6. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
show running-config
show startup-config
show interfaces
show ip route
show version
show memory

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
line configuration mode
user executive mode
global configuration mode
privileged executive mode
interface configuration mode
enable mode

8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
Router# name Fontana
Router# hostname Fontana
Router(config)# name Fontana
Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

10. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

12. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show NVRAM
show startup-config
show running-config
show version

13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
hot keys
context-check
context-sensitive
structured check
command override
command syntax check

14. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
The host A is turned off.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-R
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z

16. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
RAM
ROM
Flash
NVRAM

18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
toinen

19. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
Telnet
Console
AUX
SSH

CCNA 1: Module 10 Question Answer

2008-06-05T08:04:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 10 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
connecting a PC to a router's console port
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
They propagate broadcasts.
They enlarge collision domains.
They segment broadcast domains.
They interconnect different network technologies.
Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
router
hub
switch
wireless access point

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
STP
UTP
coaxial
single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
Five broadcast domains are present.
Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
xFive networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
RJ 11
DB 60
Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
smart serial
RJ 45

7. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096

8. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
both host A and B would be successful
host A would be successful, host B would fail
host B would be successful, host A would fail
both Host A and B would fail

9. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
192.168.1.1
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.3.1
192.168.3.54

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

12. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
wireless access point
router
hub
switch

13. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
2
3
4
5

14. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
crossover cable
straight through cable
rollover cable
V.35 cable

16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248

18. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

19. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
cross-over
straight-through
rollover
patch cable

20. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface

21. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
direct configuration of the device
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

22. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater

23. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7

CCNA 1: Module 9 Question Answer

2008-06-04T09:12:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 9 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link Control sublayer
Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
header field - preamble and stop frame
data field - network layer packet
data field - physical addressing
trailer field - FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
BA
A1
B3
1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time

CCNA 1: Module 8 Question Answer

2008-06-04T08:30:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 8 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable

2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45
Type F

3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical

6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
OTDR
TDR
multimeter

7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
frequency
amplitude
throughput
crosstalk
bandwidth

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cable
straight-through cable

11. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP

13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
wireless
acoustic

14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA 1: Module 7 Question Answer

2008-06-04T08:10:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 7 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

1. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
non-deterministic
less overhead
one station transmits at a time
collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing

2. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated

3. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
8

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af

6. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

8. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
media sharing
application processes
logical topology
intermediary device function

9. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
MAC
HDLC
NIC

13. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16. What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17 . Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
the physical layer implementation
the number of hosts to be interconnected

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

CCNA 1: Module 6 Question Answer

2008-05-30T10:43:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 6 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

1. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252

3. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
/24
/16
/20
/27
/25
/28

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

7. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.

8. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing

9. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

10. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

11. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

12. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

13. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224

14. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

15. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing

16. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification

17. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

18. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

19. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27

20. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
an internet
a network
an octet
a radi

21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

22. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers
network printers
routers
remote workstations
laptops

CCNA 1: Module 5 Question Answer

2008-05-30T09:56:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration
Module 1 : Chapter 5

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
**source and destination IP address

3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
time-to-live
header checksum

5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
network portion
gateway address

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
192.133.219.1

7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
static
standard

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
geographic location
ownership

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
router
hub
switch
firewall
access point
bridge

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
performance degradation
security issues
limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility

15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
4
5
7
8
11

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA 1: Module 4 Question Answer

2008-05-30T09:32:00.001-07:00

CCNA Exploration

1. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.

2. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
80
1024
1728

3. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
source and destination

4. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
minimal delays in data delivery
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header

6. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
session establishment
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect

7 . Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
3431
3475

8. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts

9 . During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be delivered.
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.

10. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
0 to 1023
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535

11. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
UDP
HTTP
DNS

12. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
flow overhead
connectionless
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements

13. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
window size
acknowledgments

14. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
source port

15. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

16. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
identifies the communicating applications
identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
identifies the devices communicating over the local media

17. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
flow control
connectionless services
session establishment
numbering and sequencing
best effort delivery

18. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
transport
network

19. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
This contains a Telnet request.
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
This is a TCP header.

20. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.

CCNA 1- Module 3 Question Answer

2008-05-20T18:57:00.000-07:00

CCNA EXploration

CHAPTER 3

1. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
used by the server to resolve names

2. What are two forms of application layer software?
applications
syntax

3. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between
a client and a server?
FTP

4. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks?
decentralized resources
resource sharing without a dedicated server

5. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the
network?
application

6. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications?
acts as both a client and server within the same communication
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files
does not require specialized software

7. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network

8. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model?
DNS, SMTP, POP

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers?
MDA, MTA

10. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web
server to a client browser?
HTTPS
HTTP

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email?
receives email from the client's MUA
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers

12. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
does not support encryption

13. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function?
DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

14. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP
address?
DNS

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is
represented on line 5?
80

16. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks?
initiate data exchanges
may upload data to servers

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in
Microsoft networks?
SMB
18. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-
five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model?
centralized administration
security is easier to enforce

19. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for
gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type?
User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for
services?
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

CCNA 1: Module 2 Question Answer

2008-04-29T09:07:00.000-07:00

CCNA Exploration, Semester 1st
Chapter 2

[Options with Red Colour are Correct answers]

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection

3. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch

4. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added
The logical address is added
The physical address is added
The process port number is added

5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of datamanage data
manage data flow of data
final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the path to use to reach the destination host
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A -- WAN
Network B -- WAN
Network C -- LAN
Network B -- MAN
Network C -- WAN
Network A -- LAN

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
Piping
PDU streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation

10. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation

11. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN

12. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data representation, encoding, and control
reliability, flow control, and error detection
detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access itthe division of segments into packets

13. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data

14. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU's
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulationseliminate standardization among vendor

15. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J

17. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

18. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
enables consistent network paths for communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
enables the reassembly of complete messages
tracks delay between end devices

19. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate devicea media device

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
source
end
transfer
intermediary

21. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).

All things about CCNA

Semister 3: Chapter 1

CCNA Exploration 3 LAN Switching and Wireless Final Exam

ccna 3 : Module 7

ccna 3 : Module 6 question answer

CCNA 3 : Module 5

CCNA 2 : Module 2

CCNA 2 : Module 1

CCNA 1: Final Question Answer

CCNA 1: Module 11 Question Answer

CCNA ExplorationChapter 11 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

CCNA 1: Module 10 Question Answer

CCNA ExplorationChapter 10 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

CCNA 1: Module 9 Question Answer

CCNA ExplorationChapter 9 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

CCNA 1: Module 8 Question Answer

CCNA ExplorationChapter 8 : 1st Semester

[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

CCNA 1: Module 7 Question Answer

CCNA 1: Module 6 Question Answer

CCNA 1: Module 5 Question Answer

CCNA 1: Module 4 Question Answer

CCNA 1- Module 3 Question Answer

CCNA 1: Module 2 Question Answer

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 11 : 1st Semester

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 10 : 1st Semester

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 9 : 1st Semester

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 8 : 1st Semester