ccna 3 : Module 7

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 9 : 1st Semester
[Options with Red Color are correct Answers]

 

Take Assessment - ESwitching Chapter 7 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

 

1. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?

set up WEP on the access point only

set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it

set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open

set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open

 

 

2. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)

802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.

The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.

802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.

802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.

802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

 

3. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?

site survey

risk assessment

scalability design

network protocol analysis

4. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?

CSMA/CD

token passing

CSMA/CA

polling

5. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?

dynamically assigns an IP address to the host

provides local DHCP services

converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation

provides a gateway for connecting to other networks

6. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?

beacon

password

probe request

association request

7. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?

Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.

Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.

Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.

Disable SSID broadcasts.

8. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?

802.11a

802.11b

802.11g

802.11n

9. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?

to keep users segregated on separate subnets

to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized

to keep signals from interfering with each other

to keep traffic secure

 

10. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?

Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.

Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.

All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.

All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.

11. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)

802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.

Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.

The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.

802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.

A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.

12. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?

association response

beacon

key

probe request

13. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?

converts clear text data before transmission

indicates which channel the data should flow on

determines that the correct host is utilizing the network

allows the host to choose which channel to use

14. Why is security so important in wireless networks?

Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.

Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.

Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.

Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

15. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?

authentication

SSID broadcasting

MAC address filtering

EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

 

 

16. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)

MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.

Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.

Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.

Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.

Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

17. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?

This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.

The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.

Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.

Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.

18. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.

Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.

Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.

An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

19. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?

bandwidth saturation

privacy concerns

media contention

device interoperability

20

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?

Network Mode

Network Name (SSID)

Radio Band

Wide Channel

Standard Channel

21. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)

gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures

built-in Ethernet switch

network management station

VTP server

wireless access point

VPN concentrator

ccna 3 : Module 6 question answer

Take Assessment - ESwitching Chapter 6 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

 

CCNA Exploration
Chapter 6 : 3rd Semester
[Options with Red Colour are correct Answers]

 

1

Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?

The router interface is shut down.

The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.

All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.

The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.

The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

 

2

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?

PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.

The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.

The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.

The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

 

3

Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?

R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.

R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.

Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.

The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.

 

4

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?

PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.

The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.

An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.

The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

5. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?

Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.

Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.

Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

6

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

This design will not scale easily.

The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.

This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.

This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.

This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.

If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

7. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?

a network with more than 100 subnetworks

a network with a limited number of VLANs

a network with experienced support personnel

a network using a router with one LAN interface

8. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?

Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.

Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.

Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.

Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

9

Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.

The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.

The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

10. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)

one subinterface per VLAN

one physical interface for each subinterface

one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface

one trunked link per VLAN

a management domain for each subinterface

a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

11. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?

Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.

Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

12. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)

subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth

more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing

less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

13

Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?

R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.

S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.

S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.

S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

14. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?

The physical interface must have an IP address configured.

The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.

The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.

The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet

15.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

Port 0/4 is not active.

Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.

Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.

Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

 

16

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.

A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.

Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.

Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

 

17. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?

Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.

Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.

Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.

Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

 

18. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.

When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.

When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

19

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.

Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.

Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.

Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.

Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

 

20. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)

The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.

The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.

The command configures a subinterface.

The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.

Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address

CCNA 3 : Module 5

 

Take Assessment - ESwitching Chapter 4 - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

 

1. What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)

unable to add VLANs

can add VLANs of local significance

forward broadcasts out all ports with no respect to VLAN information

can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes

can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)

If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.

This switch shows no configuration revision errors.

This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.

This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.

This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

 

3. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?

only VLAN 1

all VLANs

no VLANs

the native VLAN

4. Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?

Reset the revision number on S2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.

Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.

Change S1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat and change back to server mode.

Change S2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically propagate.

 

5. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?

Enable VTP pruning.

Change the VTP domain name.

Change the VTP mode to client.

Change all the interfaces on the switch to access ports.

6. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)

revision number

domain name

pruning

mode

domain password

version number

7
Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)

Switch1 is in client mode.

Switch2 is in server mode.

Switch2 is in transparent mode.

Switch1 is in a different management domain.

Switch1 has end devices that are connected to the ports.

Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

8. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?

A five-minute update timer has elapsed.

A port on the switch has been shutdown.

The switch is changed to the transparent mode.

A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.

9. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?

It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.

It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.

It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.

It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.

It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

 

10

Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?

Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.

The switches must be interconnected via an access link.

The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.

11

Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?

All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.

Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.

SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

12

Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?

S2 will automatically transition to VTP transparent mode.

S2 will remove all VLANs from the VLAN database until the cable is reconnected.

S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision, but will lose the VLANs if it is reloaded.

S2 will automatically send a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

 

13. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)

Switches must be connected via trunks.

The VTP domain name is case sensitive.

Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.

The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.

Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

14

Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?

The switch operates as a VTP client.

The switch operates in VTP transparent mode.

The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

The switch operates as a VTP server in the default VTP domain and does not affect the configuration in the existing VTP domain.

15.  Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)

Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.

Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.

Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.

Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.

Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

 

16

Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?

It verifies the configured VTP password.

It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.

It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.

It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

 

17. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.

VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.

VTP allows a switch to be configured to belong to more than one VTP domain.

VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

 

18. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?

Layer 2 broadcast

Layer 2 multicast

Layer 2 unicast

Layer 3 broadcast

Layer 3 multicast

Layer 3 unicast

 

19

Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?

VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.

Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.

Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.

 

20. Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)

Pruning is enabled by default.

Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.

Pruning must be configured on all VTP servers in the domain.

VLANs on VTP client-mode switches will not be pruned.

Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

[Above 85%]

CCNA 2 : Module 2

CCNA2 - Module 2

1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface

2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.

4. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

6. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

8. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

10. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device

11. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

12. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address

13. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

14. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

15. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route

16. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.

17. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25

18. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

19. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

CCNA 2 : Module 1

CCNA Exploration (Version 4)

Second Semester

 

1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

10.  Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over

17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded

19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4

20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory

21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination addres

CCNA 1: Final Question Answer

CCNA1 - Final Exam

1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
A, B, D, G

Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
only computer D

Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
enable secret

Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
100 Base-FX
1000 Base LX

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
192.168.254.1

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
address translation

Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.95 /27

What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
NVRAM

A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
router

Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
transport

Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J#

Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
upper-layer connection-oriented protocols

A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
enable secret

Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?
a terminal emulation program

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)
The connection type is called a VTY session.
The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.

The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
service port number

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
A single broadcast domain is present
Five collision domains exist.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
segment1
segment3
segment4
What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
uses a flat structure
uniquely identifies each host
contains a network portion

Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
The return segment will contain a source port of 23.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
198.133.219.25:80

During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two applications communicating the data

Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)
The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.

Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

3

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - straight-through cable

Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
The host's primary domain name server.

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
The data listed is associated with the transport layer.

Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
physical addressing
media access control

Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 1023

As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address
255.255.254.0

Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?
Athens

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75

Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star

Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
subnet mask incorrectly entered

Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)
192.168.18.49
192.168.18.52
192.168.18.59

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The prefix of the computer address is /27.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving Dallas

Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
transport